Placement Aptitude Mock Test 2

Test Instructions

Parameter	Details
Total Questions	100
Total Time	120 minutes
Sections	4 (Quantitative, Logical, Verbal, Technical)
Marking	+1 for correct, -0.25 for wrong (negative marking)
Passing Score	60+ marks

Section Breakdown

Section	Questions	Time Suggested
Quantitative Aptitude	30	35 minutes
Logical Reasoning	30	35 minutes
Verbal Ability	20	25 minutes
Technical	20	25 minutes

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Section 1: Quantitative Aptitude (30 Questions)

Q1. A man buys two articles for ₹1200 each. He sells one at 20% profit and the other at 20% loss. What is his net profit/loss percentage?

A) 4% profit B) 4% loss C) No profit no loss D) 2% loss

Q2. The average of five consecutive even numbers is 36. Find the largest number.

A) 38 B) 40 C) 42 D) 44

Q3. A train running at 72 km/hr crosses a platform in 35 seconds. If the train is 280m long, what is the platform length?

A) 380m B) 420m C) 450m D) 500m

Q4. 15 men can complete a work in 24 days. After working for 6 days, 5 more men join. In how many more days will the work be completed?

A) 12 B) 13.5 C) 14 D) 15

Q5. A mixture of 60 liters has milk and water in ratio 3:1. How much water must be added to make the ratio 2:1?

A) 5 liters B) 10 liters C) 15 liters D) 20 liters

Q6. Find the compound interest on ₹10,000 at 20% per annum for 1.5 years, compounded half-yearly.

A) ₹3150 B) ₹3310 C) ₹3450 D) ₹3655

Q7. A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B in 15 days. They work together for 4 days, then B leaves. How many more days will A take to finish?

A) 2 days B) 3 days C) 4 days D) 5 days

Q8. The sum of two numbers is 45 and their HCF is 5. If their LCM is 100, find the numbers.

A) 15, 30 B) 20, 25 C) 10, 35 D) 5, 40

Q9. A boat can travel 16 km upstream in 2 hours and 24 km downstream in 1.5 hours. Find the speed of the current.

A) 2 km/hr B) 3 km/hr C) 4 km/hr D) 5 km/hr

Q10. The ratio of present ages of father and son is 7:2. After 10 years, the ratio will be 5:2. Find the father's present age.

A) 35 years B) 40 years C) 42 years D) 45 years

Q11. If log₁₀2 = 0.3010 and log₁₀3 = 0.4771, find log₁₀54.

A) 1.7324 B) 1.7781 C) 1.8125 D) 1.9030

Q12. A sum of ₹8000 becomes ₹9261 in 3 years at compound interest. Find the rate of interest.

A) 5% B) 6% C) 7% D) 8%

Q13. The average weight of 15 persons increases by 3 kg when one person weighing 50 kg is replaced. Find the weight of the new person.

A) 90 kg B) 95 kg C) 100 kg D) 105 kg

Q14. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% on the marked price and still gains 17%. By what percentage is the marked price above cost price?

A) 20% B) 25% C) 30% D) 35%

Q15. The circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose area is 484 cm². Find the area of the circle.

A) 484 cm² B) 616 cm² C) 704 cm² D) 800 cm²

Q16. In how many ways can 6 people be seated around a circular table?

A) 120 B) 240 C) 360 D) 720

Q17. Three coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at least 2 heads?

A) 1/2 B) 3/8 C) 1/4 D) 5/8

Q18. If 30% of a number is 45 less than 55% of the same number, find the number.

A) 150 B) 160 C) 180 D) 200

Q19. Pipe A can fill a tank in 12 hours, pipe B in 15 hours. Both are opened together, but after 4 hours pipe A is closed. How much more time will B take to fill the tank?

A) 5 hours B) 6 hours C) 7 hours D) 8 hours

Q20. The average of 8 numbers is 20. The average of first 5 is 18 and the average of last 4 is 24. Find the 5th number.

A) 22 B) 24 C) 26 D) 28

Q21. If x - 1/x = 3, find x² + 1/x².

A) 9 B) 11 C) 13 D) 15

Q22. A and B can do a work in 18 days, B and C in 24 days, A and C in 36 days. In how many days will all three together complete the work?

A) 12 days B) 14 days C) 16 days D) 18 days

Q23. The volume of a sphere is 38808 cm³. Find its surface area.

A) 5544 cm² B) 6160 cm² C) 6600 cm² D) 7700 cm²

Q24. In a 500m race, the ratio of speeds of A and B is 3:4. A has a start of 100m. By how many meters does A win?

A) 25m B) 50m C) 75m D) 100m

Q25. A trader sells two articles at the same price. On one he gains 25% and on the other he loses 25%. What is his overall profit/loss percentage?

A) 6.25% profit B) 6.25% loss C) No profit no loss D) 12.5% loss

Q26. If a : b = 3 : 4 and b : c = 8 : 9, find a : c.

A) 1:3 B) 2:3 C) 3:4 D) 4:9

Q27. What is the unit digit of 7⁵⁶?

A) 1 B) 3 C) 7 D) 9

Q28. A man can row at 8 km/hr in still water. It takes him thrice as long to row upstream as to row downstream. Find the speed of the stream.

A) 2 km/hr B) 3 km/hr C) 4 km/hr D) 6 km/hr

Q29. The sum of three consecutive multiples of 4 is 180. Find the largest number.

A) 56 B) 60 C) 64 D) 68

Q30. In what ratio must rice at ₹8.50/kg be mixed with rice at ₹13/kg to get a mixture worth ₹10/kg?

A) 2:1 B) 3:2 C) 4:3 D) 5:4

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Section 2: Logical Reasoning (30 Questions)

Q31. Find the missing number: 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?

A) 18 B) 20 C) 21 D) 23

Q32. Find the odd one out: 3, 5, 7, 12, 17, 19

A) 5 B) 7 C) 12 D) 17

Q33. In a certain code, 'LIGHT' is written as 'MJHIU'. How is 'MIGHT' written?

A) NHHUI B) NJHIU C) NJGHU D) NJHIT

Q34. Statement: All cats are dogs. Some dogs are rats.

Conclusions: I. All rats are cats. II. Some rats are dogs.

A) Only I follows B) Only II follows C) Both follow D) Neither follows

Q35. Arrange in order: 1. Plant 2. Seed 3. Tree 4. Fruit 5. Flower

A) 2,1,3,5,4 B) 2,1,5,3,4 C) 2,1,3,4,5 D) 1,2,3,4,5

Q36. Find the next term: A, C, F, J, ?

A) M B) N C) O D) P

Q37. If A = 2, B = 4, C = 6, ... what is the value of Z?

A) 50 B) 51 C) 52 D) 54

Q38. Pointing to a woman, Rajesh said, "She is the mother of my brother's son." How is the woman related to Rajesh?

A) Sister B) Sister-in-law C) Aunt D) Mother

Q39. Complete the series: ZA, YB, XC, WD, ?

A) VE B) VE C) UF D) UE

Q40. In a row of 50 students, Priya is 20th from the right. What is her position from the left?

A) 29 B) 30 C) 31 D) 32

Q41. If SCHOOL is coded as 19-3-8-15-15-12, what is the code for TEACHER?

A) 20-5-1-3-8-5-18 B) 20-5-1-3-8-5-9 C) 20-5-1-4-8-5-18 D) 20-6-1-3-8-5-18

Q42. Find the odd pair: (3-9), (4-16), (5-25), (6-30)

A) 3-9 B) 4-16 C) 5-25 D) 6-30

Q43. Statement: The company has decided to increase the price of its products.

Assumptions: I. The demand will decrease. II. The profit will increase.

A) Only I is implicit B) Only II is implicit
C) Both are implicit D) Neither is implicit

Q44. What comes next: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?

A) 35 B) 37 C) 38 D) 40

Q45. If TABLE is coded as UBCMF, what is coded as GJMF?

A) FILM B) FILE C) FIRE D) FINE

Q46. Find the wrong number: 2, 5, 10, 17, 27, 37, 50

A) 10 B) 17 C) 27 D) 37

Q47. In a code, '256' means 'you are good', '637' means 'we are bad', '358' means 'good and bad'. What is the code for 'and'?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 8

Q48. Arrange the words: 1. Harvest 2. Plant 3. Plow 4. Sow 5. Thresh

A) 3,2,4,1,5 B) 3,4,2,1,5 C) 2,3,4,1,5 D) 3,2,4,5,1

Q49. If CORRECT is coded as 7, SMART is coded as 5, what is the code for BRILLIANT?

A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 11

Q50. Find the missing letter: B, E, J, Q, ?

A) X B) Y C) Z D) A

Q51. Five friends P, Q, R, S, T sit in a row. Q is between P and R. S is between R and T. P is at one end. Who is at the other end?

A) Q B) R C) S D) T

Q52. Complete: 3 : 12 :: 5 : ?

A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 40

Q53. If + means -, - means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +, then 15 - 3 + 2 = ?

A) 10 B) 12 C) 13 D) 15

Q54. Find the odd one: Rose, Lotus, Marigold, Lily

A) Rose B) Lotus C) Marigold D) Lily

Q55. Which number replaces the question mark?

  3   5   7
  6  10  14
  9  15  ?

A) 18 B) 20 C) 21 D) 24

Q56. Statement: Some books are pens. All pens are pencils.

Conclusions: I. Some books are pencils. II. All pencils are pens.

A) Only I follows B) Only II follows
C) Both follow D) Neither follows

Q57. If MOUSE is written as NQXUG, what is written as KQWNG?

A) JUMP B) LUMP C) JUMO D) KUMP

Q58. Find the next number: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ?

A) 42 B) 45 C) 48 D) 49

Q59. In a code language, 'kil tip zip' means 'good bad ugly', 'mip zip rip' means 'very bad day', 'kil mip qip' means 'very good boy'. What is the code for 'ugly'?

A) kil B) tip C) zip D) rip

Q60. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife." How is the lady related to the man?

A) Mother B) Sister C) Mother-in-law D) Sister-in-law

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Section 3: Verbal Ability (20 Questions)

Q61. Choose the word opposite in meaning to FRUGAL:

A) Economical B) Extravagant C) Thrifty D) Saving

Q62. Find the correctly spelled word:

A) Accomodate B) Accommodate C) Acommodate D) Accomoddate

Q63. Choose the word nearest in meaning to EPHEMERAL:

A) Eternal B) Permanent C) Transient D) Lasting

Q64. Fill in the blank: The teacher divided the sweets ___ the children.

A) between B) among C) with D) to

Q65. Rearrange: (P) that he passed (Q) He worked so hard (R) the examination (S) with flying colors

A) QPRS B) QPSR C) QRPS D) QSPR

Q66. Error spotting: Neither of the two boys (A) / have submitted (B) / their assignments (C) / No error (D)

A) A B) B C) C D) D

Q67. Synonym of AUSTERE:

A) Luxurious B) Severe C) Comfortable D) Generous

Q68. Fill in the blank: The train had left before I ___ the station.

A) reach B) reached C) had reached D) reaching

Q69. One word substitution: A person who cannot read or write.

A) Ignorant B) Illiterate C) Uneducated D) Backward

Q70. Antonym of SPORADIC:

A) Rare B) Frequent C) Scattered D) Irregular

Q71. Fill in the blank: Neither the teacher nor the students ___ interested.

A) was B) were C) is D) has

Q72. Idiom meaning: To hit the nail on the head

A) To hurt someone B) To do exactly the right thing
C) To construct something D) To miss the target

Q73. Synonym of CANDID:

A) Deceitful B) Frank C) Reserved D) Diplomatic

Q74. Error spotting: The news (A) / are (B) / very good (C) / No error (D)

A) A B) B C) C D) D

Q75. Fill in the blank: He is ___ European.

A) a B) an C) the D) no article

Q76. Choose the word opposite to MUNDANE:

A) Ordinary B) Heavenly C) Worldly D) Common

Q77. Rearrange: (P) is the (Q) The elephant (R) animal (S) largest land

A) QRPS B) QPRS C) QSPR D) QRSP

Q78. Fill in the blank: She is married ___ her cousin.

A) with B) to C) at D) by

Q79. Synonym of ZEALOUS:

A) Apathetic B) Enthusiastic C) Indifferent D) Lazy

Q80. One word substitution: A place where birds are kept.

A) Zoo B) Aquarium C) Aviary D) Sanctuary

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Section 4: Technical (20 Questions)

Q81. What is the output of:

int a = 5, b = 10;
printf("%d", a++ + ++b);

A) 15 B) 16 C) 17 D) 18

Q82. In SQL, which command is used to change the structure of a table?

A) MODIFY B) ALTER C) UPDATE D) CHANGE

Q83. What is the space complexity of merge sort?

A) O(1) B) O(log n) C) O(n) D) O(n log n)

Q84. In OS, which scheduling algorithm provides the shortest average waiting time?

A) FCFS B) SJF C) Round Robin D) Priority

Q85. Which data structure uses FIFO principle?

A) Stack B) Queue C) Tree D) Graph

Q86. What is the output of:

char str[] = "Hello";
printf("%d", strlen(str));

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 1

Q87. Which normal form removes partial dependencies?

A) 1NF B) 2NF C) 3NF D) BCNF

Q88. In TCP/IP, which layer handles end-to-end communication?

A) Network B) Transport C) Session D) Application

Q89. Which sorting algorithm is best for nearly sorted data?

A) Quick Sort B) Merge Sort C) Insertion Sort D) Heap Sort

Q90. What is the default port for HTTPS?

A) 80 B) 443 C) 8080 D) 21

Q91. In OOP, wrapping data and methods into a single unit is called:

A) Inheritance B) Polymorphism C) Encapsulation D) Abstraction

Q92. What does the following code print?

int arr[5] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
printf("%d", arr[3]);

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

Q93. Which SQL clause is used to filter grouped results?

A) WHERE B) HAVING C) GROUP BY D) ORDER BY

Q94. In a binary search tree, what is the property?

A) Left < Root < Right B) Left > Root > Right
C) Left = Root = Right D) None of these

Q95. What is the foreign key constraint in SQL?

A) Must be unique B) References primary key of another table
C) Cannot be NULL D) Auto-incremented

Q96. Which protocol is used for email transmission?

A) HTTP B) FTP C) SMTP D) TCP

Q97. Memory allocated for local variables is stored in:

A) Heap B) Stack C) Data Segment D) Code Segment

Q98. In C, what is the size of char?

A) 1 byte B) 2 bytes C) 4 bytes D) 8 bytes

Q99. Which data structure is used for implementing BFS?

A) Stack B) Queue C) Priority Queue D) Tree

Q100. What is the minimum number of edges in a connected graph with n vertices?

A) n B) n-1 C) n+1 D) n(n-1)/2

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Answer Key

Quantitative Aptitude (Q1-Q30)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	B	7	B	13	B	19	B	25	B
2	B	8	B	14	C	20	C	26	B
3	C	9	A	15	B	21	B	27	A
4	B	10	C	16	A	22	C	28	C
5	B	11	A	17	A	23	A	29	C
6	B	12	A	18	C	24	A	30	B

Logical Reasoning (Q31-Q60)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
31	C	37	C	43	B	49	B	55	C
32	C	38	B	44	B	50	A	56	A
33	B	39	A	45	C	51	D	57	A
34	B	40	C	46	C	52	B	58	D
35	A	41	A	47	D	53	C	59	B
36	C	42	D	48	A	54	B	60	C

Verbal Ability (Q61-Q80)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
61	B	66	B	71	B	76	B
62	B	67	B	72	B	77	A
63	C	68	B	73	B	78	B
64	B	69	B	74	B	79	B
65	A	70	B	75	A	80	C

Technical (Q81-Q100)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
81	B	86	B	91	C	96	C
82	B	87	B	92	C	97	B
83	C	88	B	93	B	98	A
84	B	89	C	94	A	99	B
85	B	90	B	95	B	100	B

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Score Interpretation

Score	Performance	Recommendation
85-100	Excellent	Ready for top companies
70-84	Good	Practice weak areas
55-69	Average	Need significant improvement
Below 55	Needs Work	Focus on fundamentals

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Last Updated: March 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions

What is the salary range offered through the Placement Aptitude Mock Test 2 - 2026 process?

This mock test is primarily an aptitude screening step, so it typically does not publish a fixed salary range. Final salary depends on the company’s role, location, and your performance in subsequent rounds (interview/technical evaluation). For accurate salary expectations, check the specific job/drive details after you clear the test.

What are the eligibility criteria to appear for Placement Aptitude Mock Test 2 - 2026?

Eligibility is usually based on your academic background and the company’s drive requirements, not on the mock test itself. Ensure you meet the minimum criteria mentioned in the official placement notification (e.g., degree, year of passing, and any CGPA/percentage thresholds) before registering.

How difficult is the Placement Aptitude Mock Test 2 - 2026, and what should I expect?

The test has 100 questions in 120 minutes across Quantitative, Logical, Verbal, and Technical sections, which makes time management crucial. With negative marking (-0.25 for wrong answers), the difficulty is effectively higher because you must be selective and avoid guessing.

How should I prepare for this mock test to maximize my score (especially with negative marking)?

Focus on accuracy first: attempt questions you can solve confidently and skip uncertain ones to avoid losing marks. Practice sectional timed sets (Quant/Logical/Verbal/Technical) and use elimination strategies; also build a habit of reviewing mistakes from previous mock tests.

What are the interview rounds after clearing the mock test?

In most placement processes, the mock test is followed by a shortlisting stage and then one or more rounds such as technical interviews and/or HR rounds. The exact sequence varies by company, but expect a mix of aptitude/communication checks and role-relevant technical questions after the test.

Which topics are commonly covered in the Quantitative, Logical, Verbal, and Technical sections?

Quantitative typically includes arithmetic, algebra basics, percentages, ratios, time-speed-distance, and number systems. Logical questions often cover puzzles, sequences, syllogisms, and data interpretation logic, while Verbal focuses on grammar, reading comprehension, and vocabulary; Technical questions depend on the role and may include fundamentals from your domain.

How do I apply or register for Placement Aptitude Mock Test 2 - 2026?

You generally apply by using the registration link provided on the placement/drive page for “Placement Aptitude Mock Test 2 - 2026.” After registering, follow the instructions for test timing, login method, and any required details (like resume/college info) to ensure you can attempt the test without issues.

What is the selection rate or passing criteria for this mock test?

The mock test specifies a passing score of 60+ marks, with +1 for correct and -0.25 for wrong answers. While an exact “selection rate” is not provided in the excerpt, clearing the 60+ threshold and maintaining high accuracy generally improves your chances of moving to the next stage.