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21 Sept 2026
placement brief / Government Exams / placement papers / 21 Sept 2026

IBPS Clerk Papers 2026: Pattern, Syllabus & Qs

IBPS Clerk previous year papers 2026: Prelims-Mains pattern, full syllabus, and solved Numerical, Reasoning, English and GA practice questions.

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Last Updated: September 2026


📋 Table of Contents

  1. Exam Overview
  2. Eligibility Criteria
  3. Exam Pattern
  4. Syllabus
  5. Quantitative Aptitude Questions
  6. Reasoning Questions
  7. General Awareness Questions
  8. English Language Questions
  9. Previous Year Cutoff
  10. Preparation Strategy
  11. Recommended Books
  12. FAQ

Exam Overview

The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Clerk (IBPS Clerk) examination recruits candidates for clerical cadre posts in public sector banks. "IBPS Clerk" is the common name; the official notification calls the post a Customer Service Associate (CSA), and the current recruitment cycle is CRP CSA-XVI. It is a highly competitive exam with lakhs of aspirants appearing every year.

AttributeDetails
Conducting BodyInstitute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
Exam LevelNational
Posts OfferedCustomer Service Associate (Clerk) in Public Sector Banks
Current CycleCRP CSA-XVI, notification posted 1 August 2026
Participating Banks11 Public Sector Banks
Vacancies (2026-27, indicative)About 11,403 across 37 States/UTs (notification Annexure I; no grand total printed, this is the sum of the state-wise totals)
Application Fee (CSA-XVI)₹850; ₹175 for SC/ST/PwBD/ESM/DESM candidates (both including GST)
Selection StagesPreliminary, Main (No Interview)
Official Websitewww.ibps.in

Participating Banks (2026)

  1. Bank of Baroda
  2. Bank of India
  3. Bank of Maharashtra
  4. Canara Bank
  5. Central Bank of India
  6. Indian Bank
  7. Indian Overseas Bank
  8. Punjab National Bank
  9. Punjab & Sind Bank
  10. UCO Bank
  11. Union Bank of India

Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualification

  • A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognized by the Government of India
  • Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory
  • Proficiency (reading, writing, speaking and understanding) in the local language of the State/UT you apply for is required, not merely preferable. It is checked through the Local Language Proficiency Test described below.

Age Limit

  • Minimum Age: 20 years
  • Maximum Age: 28 years (as on 01.08.2026; born between 02.08.1998 and 01.08.2006, both dates inclusive)
  • Age Relaxation:
    • SC/ST: 5 years
    • OBC (Non-Creamy Layer): 3 years
    • Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD): 10 years
    • Ex-Servicemen (ESM)/Disabled Ex-Servicemen (DESM): actual period of service in the defence forces plus 3 years (8 years for DESM belonging to SC/ST), subject to a maximum age of 50 years
    • Widows, divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried: age concession up to 35 years (General/EWS), 38 years (OBC) or 40 years (SC/ST)
    • SC/ST/OBC relaxation can be combined with only one of the other categories above, not stacked across all of them

Important Notes

  • Candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations OR
  • Should have studied Computer/Information Technology as a subject in school/college

Exam Pattern

Phase 1: Preliminary Examination

SectionSubjectQuestionsMarksDuration
1English Language303020 minutes
2Numerical Ability353520 minutes
3Reasoning Ability353520 minutes
Total10010060 minutes

Important Points:

  • Sectional timing is applicable (20 minutes per section)
  • Sectional cutoff exists (qualifying in nature)
  • 0.25 marks deducted for each wrong answer
  • Prelims is only qualifying - marks not added to final merit

Phase 2: Main Examination

SectionSubjectQuestionsMarksDuration
1General/Financial Awareness405020 minutes
2General English404035 minutes
3Reasoning Ability406035 minutes
4Quantitative Aptitude405035 minutes
Total1602002 hours 5 minutes

This is the official CRP CSA-XVI Main pattern from the notification posted 1 August 2026. The Main section is called "Reasoning Ability" with no computer component; it does not carry a "Computer Aptitude" name in this cycle.

Key Points:

  • Sectional timing is applicable
  • Sectional cutoff exists (a minimum score in each test plus a minimum total, per the notification)
  • 0.25 marks deducted for wrong answers
  • No Interview Process for IBPS Clerk
  • Final selection based on Main marks only

Local Language Proficiency Test (LLPT)

  • You must be proficient (reading, writing, speaking and understanding) in the local language of the State/UT you applied for.
  • The LLPT is marks-based and qualifying. The notification places it after the Main exam or provisional allotment, but before joining the bank.
  • If you hold a 10th-standard or higher mark sheet/certificate showing you studied the opted local language, you do not have to sit the test.
  • Candidates who fail the LLPT are not offered appointment and are disqualified from the process.

Syllabus

Numerical Ability (Prelims)

  • Simplification/Approximation
  • Number Series
  • Quadratic Equations
  • Data Interpretation (Basic)
  • Arithmetic: Percentage, Profit & Loss, Simple & Compound Interest, Ratio & Proportion, Average, Time & Work, Time & Distance, Problems on Ages, Partnership, Mixtures & Alligations, Boats & Streams

Quantitative Aptitude (Mains)

  • All Prelims topics at advanced level
  • Data Sufficiency
  • Complex Data Interpretation
  • Caselet DI
  • Probability
  • Permutation & Combination

Reasoning Ability

  • Inequalities
  • Syllogism
  • Coding-Decoding
  • Blood Relations
  • Direction Sense
  • Order & Ranking
  • Alpha-Numeric Series
  • Seating Arrangement (Circular, Linear, Square)
  • Puzzles (Floor-based, Month/Date-based, Box-based)
  • Input-Output (Mains level)

Computer Awareness (Optional Background, Not a Scored Main Section)

The CRP CSA-XVI Main has four sections, General/Financial Awareness, General English, Reasoning Ability and Quantitative Aptitude, and does not include a separate Computer Aptitude section. Computer literacy is checked only as a basic eligibility requirement (see Eligibility Criteria above), not as scored Main content. The topics below are general background only:

  • History of Computers
  • Computer Hardware & Software
  • Operating Systems
  • MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)
  • Computer Networks & Internet
  • DBMS (Basics)
  • Cyber Security
  • Computer Abbreviations

English Language

  • Reading Comprehension
  • Cloze Test
  • Fill in the Blanks
  • Error Detection
  • Sentence Improvement
  • Para Jumbles
  • Vocabulary (Synonyms, Antonyms)
  • Match the Columns
  • Word Replacement
  • Phrase Replacement

General/Financial Awareness

  • Current Affairs (National & International - Last 6 months)
  • Banking Awareness
  • Financial Awareness
  • Static GK
  • Government Schemes (Banking focus)
  • RBI Guidelines & Circulars
  • Banking Terminology
  • Important Days
  • Awards & Honors

Quantitative Aptitude Questions

Question 1

What should come in place of the question mark? 48% of 650 + 75% of 840 - 35% of 420 = ?

Solution: = (48/100) × 650 + (75/100) × 840 - (35/100) × 420 = 312 + 630 - 147 = 795


Question 2

Find the wrong number in the series: 12, 18, 30, 50, 72, 102

Solution: The intended differences are consecutive multiples of 6: 6, 12, 18, 24, 30. 12 + 6 = 18 18 + 12 = 30 30 + 18 = 48, so 50 is the wrong number and should be 48 48 + 24 = 72 72 + 30 = 102


Question 3

Solve: √? + 136 = 5/8 of 320

Solution: 5/8 of 320 = 200 √? = 200 - 136 = 64 ? = 4096


Question 4

A shopkeeper sells an article for ₹1200 and earns a profit of 20%. What is the cost price?

Solution: SP = 120% of CP CP = 1200/1.20 = ₹1000


Question 5

The average of 5 consecutive numbers is 27. Find the product of the smallest and largest number.

Solution: For consecutive numbers, average = middle number Numbers: 25, 26, 27, 28, 29 Product = 25 × 29 = 725


Question 6

A can do a piece of work in 12 days. B is 50% more efficient than A. How many days will B take to complete the same work?

Solution: A's efficiency = 1/12 B's efficiency = 1.5 × (1/12) = 1/8 B can complete the work in 8 days


Question 7

The simple interest on a sum for 4 years at 12.5% per annum is ₹4000. Find the principal.

Solution: SI = (P × R × T)/100 4000 = (P × 12.5 × 4)/100 4000 = P × 0.5 P = ₹8000


Question 8

A train 180m long passes a pole in 12 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/hr?

Solution: Speed = 180/12 = 15 m/s Speed in km/hr = 15 × (18/5) = 54 km/hr


Question 9

The ratio of the present ages of A and B is 5:7. After 8 years, the ratio will be 3:4. Find the sum of their present ages.

Solution: Let present ages be 5x and 7x (5x + 8)/(7x + 8) = 3/4 20x + 32 = 21x + 24 x = 8 Sum = 5x + 7x = 12x = 12 × 8 = 96 years


Question 10

Study the pie chart and answer: Total employees = 2400 Departments: HR (15%), IT (25%), Sales (30%), Marketing (20%), Operations (10%)

How many employees work in IT and Operations together?

Solution: IT + Operations = 25% + 10% = 35% Employees = 35% of 2400 = 0.35 × 2400 = 840


Question 11

If a : b = 3 : 4 and b : c = 5 : 6, find a : c.

Solution: a : b = 3 : 4 = 15 : 20 b : c = 5 : 6 = 20 : 24 a : b : c = 15 : 20 : 24 a : c = 15 : 24 = 5 : 8


Question 12

The circumference of a circle is 88 cm. Find its area.

Solution: 2πr = 88 r = 88 × 7/(2 × 22) = 14 cm Area = πr² = (22/7) × 196 = 616 cm²


Question 13

A mixture of 60 liters contains milk and water in the ratio 2:1. How much water must be added to make the ratio 1:2?

Solution: Milk = 40 liters, Water = 20 liters To make milk:water = 1:2 40 : (20 + x) = 1 : 2 40 × 2 = 20 + x 80 = 20 + x x = 60 liters


Question 14

A and B invest ₹15000 and ₹25000 respectively in a business. After 6 months, A withdraws ₹5000. If the total profit after 1 year is ₹11200, find A's share.

Solution: A's investment = (15000 × 6) + (10000 × 6) = 90000 + 60000 = ₹150000 B's investment = 25000 × 12 = ₹300000 Ratio = 150000 : 300000 = 1 : 2 A's share = (1/3) × 11200 = ₹3733.33


Question 15

Solve the quadratic equation: x² - 13x + 42 = 0

Solution: x² - 13x + 42 = 0 x² - 7x - 6x + 42 = 0 x(x - 7) - 6(x - 7) = 0 (x - 6)(x - 7) = 0 x = 6 or x = 7


Reasoning Questions

Question 1

Statements: All chairs are tables. Some tables are stools. All stools are benches.

Conclusions: I. Some benches are tables. II. Some stools are chairs. III. All benches are stools.

Solution: I. Follows (Some tables are stools + All stools are benches → Some benches are tables) II. Doesn't follow III. Doesn't follow (reverse not true) Only I follows


Question 2

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H sit in a row facing north. B sits second to the right of A. C sits third to the left of D. E sits at one of the extreme ends. F sits adjacent to G. H sits second to the right of F. If C sits at the extreme left end, who sits second to the left of H?

Solution: Arrangement: C, _, _, D, A, B, _, _ E at extreme end, so E at right end F adjacent to G, H second right of F Final: C, G, F, D, A, B, H, E Second to left of H is B


Question 3

If 'P × Q' means 'P is father of Q', 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is daughter of Q', 'P + Q' means 'P is sister of Q', 'P - Q' means 'P is husband of Q', then in F ÷ R × H - L, how is L related to F?

Solution: F ÷ R = F is daughter of R R × H = R is father of H H - L = H is husband of L So R is F's parent, R is H's father, H is L's husband F is daughter of R, H is son of R (or daughter if female) So H is F's brother, L is H's wife L is sister-in-law of F


Question 4

Find the next term: C2E, E5H, G12K, I27N, ?

Solution: Letters: C→E→G→I→K (skipping 1 letter) Numbers: 2, 5, 12, 27, ? Pattern: 2×2+1=5, 5×2+2=12, 12×2+3=27, 27×2+4=58 Last letter: E→H→K→N→Q (E+3=H, H+3=K, etc.) K58Q


Question 5

In a certain code language: 'LATE' is written as 'VGZO' 'COME' is written as 'XKNV' How will 'MAKE' be written?

Solution: L(12)→V(22): +10 A(1)→G(7): +6 T(20)→Z(26): +6 E(5)→O(15): +10 Pattern: +10, +6, +6, +10 MAKE: M(13)→W(23), A(1)→G(7), K(11)→Q(17), E(5)→O(15) WGQO


Question 6

Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, U have different heights. T is taller than S but shorter than R. P is taller than S but shorter than T. U is shorter than S but taller than Q. Who is the third tallest?

Solution: From clues: R > T > P > S > U > Q Therefore, the third tallest person is P.


Question 7

How many meaningful English words can be formed using the letters A, R, T, E, each letter used only once?

Solution: Possible words:

  • RATE
  • TEAR
  • TARE (weight of container) 3 meaningful words can be formed

Question 8

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the 3rd, 5th, 8th, and 10th letters of the word 'COMPETITION', which would be the second letter of that word?

Solution: C-O-M-P-E-T-I-T-I-O-N 3rd: M, 5th: E, 8th: T, 10th: O Letters: M, E, T, O Word: TOME (a book, especially a large, heavy, scholarly one) Second letter: O


Question 9

Pointing to a man, Neha said, "His only brother is the father of my daughter's father." How is the man's brother related to Neha?

Solution: Neha's daughter's father = Neha's husband Father of Neha's husband = Man's only brother So Man's brother is Neha's father-in-law


Question 10

Complete the analogy: 64 : 16 :: 125 : ?

Solution: 64 = 4³ and 16 = 4², so the rule is n³ : n². 125 = 5³, so the missing term is 5² = 25


General Awareness Questions

Question 1

What is the headquarters of IBPS?


Question 2

What does RTGS stand for?


Question 3

What is the minimum balance required in a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA)?


Question 4

Who regulates the banking sector in India?


Question 5

What is the full form of IMPS?


Question 6

Which scheme provides pension to unorganized sector workers?


Question 7

What does CRR stand for, and where is it kept?


Question 8

Which bank was the first to introduce ATM in India?


Question 9

What does KYC stand for?


Question 10

Which organization issues the Digital Rupee (e₹)?


English Language Questions

Question 1

Find the error: "The manager and his assistant (a)/ was informed about (b)/ the meeting (c)/ scheduled for tomorrow. (d)"


Question 2

Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning: VOLUMINOUS a) Bulky b) Massive c) Minute d) Extensive


Question 3

Fill in the blank: "The company decided to _______ its operations in the Asian market." a) expand b) contract c) reduce d) shrink


Question 4

Read the sentence and identify the phrase that needs improvement: "Despite of his hard work, he could not succeed."


Question 5

Choose the correct word: "The _______ of the company depends on its customer service." a) success b) successful c) successfully d) successive


Previous Year Cutoff

IBPS shows Clerk cut-offs only inside the candidate score login, so past figures are candidate-reported from scorecards, not official. They also differ sharply by state: in the 2025 cycle the General Prelims cut-off reported by separate trackers ran from 45.25 in Gujarat to 86.50 in Chandigarh, out of 100.

The state-wise 2025 table, with the states where trackers disagree marked, plus how the cut-off is set and a scoring plan you can act on now, is on IBPS Clerk Cutoff 2026.


Preparation Strategy

3-Month Preparation Plan

Month 1: Foundation Building

Week 1-2: Numerical Ability

  • Simplification techniques
  • Number series patterns
  • Basic arithmetic formulas
  • Daily: 50 questions

Week 3-4: Reasoning

  • Syllogism, Inequalities, Coding-Decoding
  • Blood Relations, Direction Sense
  • Daily: 50 questions

Month 2: Advanced Topics

Week 1-2: English

  • Grammar rules (Articles, Tenses, Subject-Verb Agreement)
  • Reading Comprehension strategy
  • Vocabulary building

Week 3-4: General Awareness

  • Banking awareness concepts
  • Current affairs (last 6 months)
  • Static GK revision

Month 3: Intensive Practice

Week 1-2:

  • Full-length sectional tests
  • Previous year papers (2018-2025)
  • Computer literacy basics (an eligibility check, not a scored Main topic)

Week 3-4:

  • Mock tests (timed)
  • Weak area improvement
  • Revision of formulas and concepts

Daily Study Schedule

TimeActivity
6:00 - 7:00 AMCurrent Affairs
7:00 - 9:00 AMNumerical Ability
9:00 - 10:00 AMBreak
10:00 - 12:00 PMReasoning Practice
12:00 - 1:00 PMEnglish
1:00 - 2:00 PMLunch
2:00 - 3:30 PMGeneral Awareness
4:00 - 5:30 PMMock Test
6:00 - 7:00 PMAnalysis

Section-wise Strategy

Numerical Ability:

  • Master multiplication tables up to 30
  • Learn squares up to 50, cubes up to 30
  • Practice approximation for faster calculations
  • Focus on Data Interpretation

Reasoning:

  • Puzzles and seating arrangement are game-changers
  • Practice at least 3-4 sets daily
  • Time yourself (max 5 minutes per set)

English:

  • Read newspaper editorials daily
  • Focus on grammar rules
  • Learn 15-20 new words daily

General Awareness:

  • Prepare last 6 months' current affairs thoroughly
  • Focus on banking and financial news
  • Make short notes for quick revision

Numerical Ability/Quantitative Aptitude

  1. "Quantitative Aptitude" by R.S. Aggarwal
  2. "Fast Track Objective Arithmetic" by Rajesh Verma
  3. "Magical Book on Quicker Maths" by M. Tyra

Reasoning Ability

  1. "Verbal & Non-Verbal Reasoning" by R.S. Aggarwal
  2. "A New Approach to Reasoning" by B.S. Sijwali

English Language

  1. "Objective General English" by S.P. Bakshi
  2. "Word Power Made Easy" by Norman Lewis
  3. "English Grammar" by Wren & Martin

General Awareness

  1. "Banking Awareness" by Arihant Publications
  2. "Lucent's General Knowledge"
  3. Monthly Current Affairs magazines

Computer Awareness (Optional, Not Exam-Scored)

The CSA-XVI Main does not include a separate Computer Aptitude section (see Syllabus above), so these are optional general reading, not required exam prep.

  1. "Computer Awareness" by Arihant Publications
  2. "Objective Computer Awareness" by R.Pillai

Online Resources

  • Websites: BankersAdda, AffairsCloud, Gradeup
  • YouTube: Study IQ, Adda247, Bankers Choice
  • Apps: Gradeup, Testbook, Adda247
  • Mock Tests: Oliveboard, PracticeMock, IBPS Guide

You May Also Like

Related: IBPS Calendar 2026-27, for every IBPS exam date and result window across the PO, Clerk (CSA), SO and RRB lanes.

Related: Government Exam Calendar 2026, for the full month-by-month schedule of competitive exams this year.

FAQ

Q1. Is there an interview for IBPS Clerk?

A: No, there is no interview process for IBPS Clerk. Selection is based purely on the Mains examination score.

Q2. What is the Local Language Proficiency Test (LLPT)?

A: The LLPT tests your proficiency in the local language of the State/UT you applied for. It is marks-based and qualifying, and the notification places it after the Main exam or provisional allotment, but before joining. Candidates who fail cannot be appointed. You are exempt if you hold a 10th-standard or higher certificate showing you studied that language.

Q3. Can I apply for multiple states in IBPS Clerk?

A: No, you can only apply for one state. You must be proficient in the local language of that state.

Q4. What is the salary of an IBPS Clerk?

A: The CRP CSA-XVI notification gives the Customer Service Associate basic pay as ₹24,050 at the start, rising in stages to ₹64,480 (the printed scale is ₹24,050-1340/3-28,070-1650/3-33,020-2000/4-41,020-2340/7-57,400-4400/1-61,800-2680/1-64,480). Allowances and perquisites come on top, as per the rules of the bank you are allotted to, so the notification prints no gross or in-hand figure.

Q5. Is there negative marking in IBPS Clerk?

A: Yes, 0.25 marks are deducted for each wrong answer in both Prelims and Mains.


Best of luck for IBPS Clerk 2026! The key to success is consistent practice and time management. You can do it! 💪


Disclaimer: This guide is for educational purposes. Always refer to the official IBPS notification for latest updates.

Where this comes from: we compile these trends from public preparation resources and what candidates report after their drives. Use it as a study guide, and confirm fees, dates, and cut-offs on the official portal for the cycle you are sitting.

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